In a recent response you wrote: “It is in the 20s (pretty much from age 20-29) that men are most likely to see most of their hair loss.” What does that mean? I am 33 and I started to notice some minor thinning in the last year and a half. My derm has said it may be “very early MPB” or the result of inflammation I had - and he would not prescribe propecia as he said “You’re not there yet”. If most men see most of their hair loss in the 20s, and my dad and older brother (38) have no thinning, should I assume since I am older than 20s and dont have that pattern in my family, that the thinning will be mild or stabilize soon or is caused by something else(though it is on the vertex)? Again, I was not prescribed propecia because “I’m not there yet” - but I thought it was best early. Just wondering about my age, and what it means if most see most loss in the 20s and my family has none.

The hair loss in the 20s is a statistical thing. Some men start balding in their 30s, less in their 40s, and some even in their 50s and 60s. There is no hard rule, but whenever you start balding, the drug finasteride is effective at slowing and/or stopping it. I do not agree with your dermatologist, as once you know you have genetic balding, the earlier you start the drug the better it is.

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